origin of capitalism, EM Wood
(14): confusion of bourgeois with capitalist is a legacy of the historiography
(17): Weber as 'Smithian'
(19): for both old commercialization and w-systems models, the extent of trade is the index of capitalist development
(20-21): M. Mann, too
(21): Polanyi as (partial) exception--distinction between society w/ markets, and 'market society' (recognition that most early markets were not 'competitive', and that competitive markets were resisted by merchants,etc.)
(26):
key--points is, of course, that advance of PF presupposed transformation of property relations. normal "order of causation suggests a failure to treat the capitalist market itself as a specific social form."
(27-32):
nice critique of supposed anti-Eurocentrism--odd to challenge the argument by further naturalizing capitalism, saying it actually had advanced quite far in TW, etc. within this view, the absence of capitalism still constitutes a 'historic failure'
(35):
two narratives in Marx: the old one, in GI and CM; suggestions of a different one, in Grundrisse and Capital [she's exaggerating the latter for effect, one thinks. but no mind]
(37-40):
brief summary of Dobb-Sweezy--Dobb, drawing on Hilton, calling into question assumption that capitalism was a 'quantitative expansion of commerce', and that it was to be found in towns/trade. debate hinged on 'prime mover'--was it endogenous? or exogenous (trade)? Dobb/Hilton showed that latter was unsustainable. Hilton demolishing Pirenne. Dobb's argument was about differentiation in the petty mode of production, which was freed from feudal strictures after 'class struggle'.
(41-42):
imp, Dobb/Hilton--despite the importance of their argument, the commercialization model is not dead, with them. once feudal fetters are removed, capitalist logic soon metastasizes (some of Sweezy's questions, in his c-argument, show this--why does petty commodity production generate capitalists and wage-labourers?)
(44-46): for
Perry Anderson, 'Absolutist State' emerges in context of feudal bonds weakening (b/c of emergence of money rents), as lordly response to that challenge. Absolutist State as 're-charged' apparatus of feudal domination.
BUT, though Anderson still understands it as feudal, he believes it liberates 'economy' because coercive powers are transferred upward, and de-coupled from point of economic extraction (this is why it's transitional); Wood making point that economic and political are still fused, but now through central State appropriating surplus through rents
(47): empirical problems with Anderson arg--English capitalism didn't need absolutism, and French absolutism didn't produce capitalism. and theoretically, still a 'fetters' model.
(48): PA review of Brenner--a 'value-added', commercialization account
(48): importance of capitalist agriculture in England is that it produces an 'internal market'--this sustains demand in the context of declining overseas markets
(49): English farmers can need Flemish market for wool--but opportunity for commerce does not produce capitalism; can simply entrench old relations of production.
question is still begged, by Anderson and commercialization account.
(51): starting point of Brenner critique of both Malthusianism and commercialization--basic demographic patterns and insertion in network of trade produced different results in different places. this is a function, of course, of the character of SP relations
(54): why tenant farmers were, uniquely, capitalist--not b/c of wage labour (non-capitalist farmers in past had hired wage-labour), but because access to the means of reproducing themselves was mediated by the market and its imperatives
(57-58): one
critique of Brenner--was 1600s or 1700s England distinct enough to be called agrarian capitalism (either b/c France was not that far behind, or b/c wage labour was not general)? but the first confuses land productivity with labour productivity; and the second leaves the origins of wage-labour mystified, unless it agrees to the Brenner thesis, which explains them (after all, proletarianization will not be the inevitable consequence of differentiation--in other words,
differentiation was not the cause but the effect of the change in s-p relations)
(61-62):
PA critique of Brenner--alleged contradiction between his transition argument, and his BR argument (i.e,. in Merchants and Revolution): said to have demonstrated the revolutionary role of merchants, in Eng Rev. actually, Brenner's position on BR is clear: he thinks it is a concept inherited from the commercialization model (mechanical materialism, etc.), in which PF increase (b/c of increasing division of labour--capitalist laws of motion are being generalized), merchant class grows, soon throws off feudal fetters.the key point, re: Merchants and Revolution, is that in France the revolutionary bourgeois need not be identified with capitalism; and in England, if they are to be identified, it is because the key transitions (in agriculture) have already taken place [EM Wood acknowledging that there is not enough, here, about links to international trade]
(66-67): EP Thompson offering a Brenner-like account, in Making of the English Working Class, b/c of his attentiveness to new forms of work discipline--new imperatives of productivity and profit mark capitalism as distinct, for him. this is why he focuses on 1700s, rather than later industrialization--b/c this is when specifically capitalist forms were taking shape
(74): identification of capitalism with towns is hegemonic (here discussing city-states). but incorrect.
(75): this becomes explanation of why West? b/c of unique autonomy of cities and the burghers.
(75):
key--but, of course, historically this is absurd. lots of urban settlements that, while making use of market opportunities, never were systematically subject to market imperatives (and no tendency to develop from former to latter)
(77): early commercial rivalries had to do with competition over extra-economic privileges (shipping routes, etc.)
(78): dominant principle of trade was 'profit upon alienation'
(81): extensive commerce in food production is associated, of course, w/ rise of cities.
but this does not mean that food production was subject to market imperatives (and its consequences--dev of PF, etc.)
(82): the trade in grain, also, was a function of the wealth of prosperous consumers (and, of course, their dependents).
(82): landed aristocracy was 'principal market for a range of products' at this time (Hilton)
(85-86):
key-- urban wealth in medieval and early modern Europe was still 'politically constituted' -- it was a consequence of status, privileges ('collective lordships'). in short, this kind of 'economic development' was extra-economic in source, and thus self-limiting.
(88-89):
int discussion of Dutch Republic, as paradigmatic failed transition--EM Wood arguing dominated by merchants whose chief vocation was circulation rather than production (even though direct producers start to depend on market for subsistence, etc.). in short, urban population was sustained by dominance in international trade, not by superior labour productivity in agriculture, as in Britain [hmm. more reading needed, here--how can you have such systematic market dependence, of direct producers?]
(91-93): in
crisis of 17th century, Dutch came up against limits of pre-capitalist economic system. response to crisis was disinvestment from agriculture, unlike GB, and attempt to undergird commercial privilege (this was behind backing of William the Orange in England, against France)
(95-97): useful pithy description of SP relations, and difference between pre-capitalist rel. and capitalist rel.
(98):
imp, England--none of the monarchical States were (1) as effectively unified as England (particularly true after 16th century). also, (2) no economy as characterized by as much land concentration--what landlords lacked in extra-economic autonomy, they made up for in economic power. this was to impel them towards a strategy of farming out to tenants, forcing productivity increases; they couldn't depend on extra-economic coercion, as in France [all this seems a rather roundabout way of explaining what happened in England]
(102): good point re: 'dissolving' effect of monetization of rents--whether or not this actually dissolves pre-capitalist relations of production depends on relations of production
(104): in France, crisis of 17th century was 'met' by a doubling-down of absolutism--vast new powers of extra-economic coercion over a peasantry with access to means of subsistence
(104): contrast between English and French surveyors--former searching for mkt values, latter for seigneurial rights
(105): a national market arose only as a corollary of capitalism/mkt society (Napoleonic State's efforts, in France); it was not a cause.
(107): early improvements were not revolutionary technological innovations--more application of accumulated knowledge, refinement in techniques (here, 16th and 17th century being discussed), and, crucially, elimination of old customs/practices (usufruct rights for non-owners, etc.)
(109): enclosures checked by monarchy, until 1688 rev. 18th C. as century of 'parliamentary enclosures'
(110-113):
imp, Locke embodies this era--his theory of property is premised on 'improvement (i.e, this is how you prove your right to land). and, in case we need reminding, labour of servant is understood as counting towards 'productive use' by landlord. this, EM Wood adding, is a feature of capitalist ideology--would never have made sense under pre-capitalist MoP
(116-117):
imp, the SRoP set the stage for class struggle--in France, over politically constituted property (aristocracy vs. monarchy, bourgeois vs. nobility and church, etc., peasants vs. all); in England, politically constituted property was not the issue, but more the economic powers of appropriation (right of enclosure, conflicts over use rights)
(118): class struggle set stage for capitalism, in England, by asserting landlords' rights over peasants' customary rights [not a very 'unintended' consequence, but this is weakness of summary]
(118-119): attack on concept of BR, even where it is rehabilitated to simply be 'outcome'-based--more 'effect than cause' where capitalism pre-exists it (can be a factor in its future development, but isn't key). BUT can't use the same concept to describe England AND France.
(120):
imp, the popular elements in the English revolution were actually fighting against the forms of property most conducive to capitalism. theirs is an anti-capitalist legacy (this is further developed in 'Democracy Against Capitailsm,' one imagines)
(120): FR tensions were old-regime ones; conflict over State apparatus.
(121): and outcome-wise, difficult to argue that it facilitated rise of capitalism (even if it did unify State, etc.)
(122): again, ER did more to promote capitalism--but it didn't occur in context of feudalism.
(128): the 'idyllic' English countryside (image of) rests on disposession of peasantry, elimination of their villages and hegemony of territorial aristocrats
(130):
imp, where does wage-labour fit in SRoP? new economic pressures produced wage-labour, but they don't presuppose wage-labour (even though wage-labour is part of the triad, it was a minority in seventeenth century England--restricted to parts of S and SE). you can be market-dependent w/o employing wage-labour, w/o being a wage-labourer.
it requires only loss of non-market access to means of self-reproduction.
(131): by end of 1600s, English capitalism confirmed in productivity dominance
(132): urban population in 1850: 40% in England and Wales, 14% in France, 10% in Germany
(134): 'British capitalism depended on a highly developed domestic market'
(135): new banking system rooted in domestic transformations, in London
(136): similarly, naval and military power rooted in exceptional wealth, which was a property of domestic transformations
(137): competitive rents take off in 16th century
(137): EM Wood position on Dutch vs. English [interesting to compare w/ Brenner, of course]
(140): b/c of nature of mass mkt, extra pressure to produce cheaply [seems wrong]
(141-143):
imp, the agrarian transition lay the groundwork for the industrial revolution--(1) created a proletariat; (2) with that, created a mass market. (Wood also adding that w/o agrarian transition, capitalism would not ever have developed! cf. demonstration effect, etc.). it was not technology (contra Polayni)--in fact, innovations in the first IR were quite minimal [hmm, worth interrogating, since this is what invites the ire of the PF school]
(144): nice
sum--"industrialization was, then, the result not the cause of mkt society, and capitalist laws of motion were the cause not the result of mass proletarianization"
(148): the int market then transmitted the imperatives of efficient production, elsewhere (i.e., so it's not just via the 'demonstration effect,' and the State) [but hang on--why would other producers be forced to produce efficiently?]
(147):
key--development of distinctive social property relations in England was well on its way by the time it became a major imperial power. the others that dominated were, of course, characterized by non-capitalist 'laws of motion'
(147-148):
imp--lay 'Left' accounts of importance of imperialism, to capitalist take-off, are built on a 'commercialization model'. moreover, they fail to recognize that other powers were more important imperialists (Spain as best example)
(148-149): and slavery? other non-capitalist powers equally engaged in plantation slavery.
(149):
in short, imperialism may have helped England on its way--but no amount of colonial wealth would have done anything to further capitalism in England, without prior transformation of social-property relations
(150): imperial expansion of pre-capitalist societies followed pre-capitalist logic: extra-economic coercion in extraction of surplus, extensive expansion, profits on alienation in trade
(153, see also 175):
imp, English in Ireland, as emerging case of capitalist imperialism (late 1500s under Tudor colonization, to 1600s under Cromwell). imposition of a new economic system, via settlers--an 'English-style commercial order' was to be implanted [there is a danger, here, of identifying capitalist imperialism as an imperialism that brings capitalism--rather than as an imperialism impelled by distinctively capitalist imperatives. Wood isn't doing much to clarify this latter question. in fact, she's confounding the two questions].
(155): argument that capitalism has tendency to 'universalize its imperatives' [hmm], counter-balanced by attempt to manage effects [so this, in her argument, is why England retreats from capitalist development in Ireland; but it seems better to locate the tension in policy-makers, and question of what might be functional for English capital. maybe just a subtle distinction, though I think not]
(157): Locke on Indians and 'improvement'
(168): the question of the State, under feudalism--localized/territorialized parcels of sovereignty; modern nation-state was born with centralization
(169): again, contra Perry Anderson, for Wood 'absolutism' reproduces a pre-capitalist unity of political and economic power, but at a higher level (France as paradigmatic case). moreover, territorialized sovereignty never fully dissolved, under absolutism, of course.
(171): in England, story is a bit different. the social transformation that brought about capitalism is the same one that brought about the nation state
(172-173):
imp, England's unification was far advanced, viz-a-viz France--this went hand in hand with 'economic unification, though it doesn't require it since the general process of centralization was rooted in tension between monarchies and parcellized sovereignties [she's being evasive re: exact nature of causation (b/c the same thing happens in France), but it clearly has its roots in underlying social transformations. the position seems to be that capitalism brings this to its fruition, but doesn't kickstart it.]
(177): no evidence that capitalism today is less in need of 'nation states' than it was before, despite rhetoric to the contrary
(177):
useful, disjuncture in capitalism between boundaries of economic appropriation and extra-economic coercion--the former can transcend the boundaries of the latter. this makes possible its unique expansiveness, also. BUT it also invites a contradiction, which is that capitalism does still need extra-economic coercion.
(182):
nice, 'modernity' has been identified with 'capitalism,' as part of the 'commercialization' model that associates bourgeois and capitalist. rethinking this identity invites a re-thinking of the relationship between modernity and capitalism. and opens us up to an anti-capitalist modernity.
(183-184): much of the Enlightenment belongs to a 'non-capitalist' society--in France, for example, the absolutist State. an overwhelmingly rural society, limited internal market in the 1700s.
(185):
imp, the 'revolutionary' program of the bourgeoisie consisted in demanding 'equal access' to the tax-office State. 'universalism,' in the language of the bourgeoisie, had a more limited meaning (anti- aristocratic privilege) than it has been given in theories of history. and their attitude to the absolutist State was equivocal.
(187): Berman/Harvey reading 'capitalism' into early accounts about 'confusion'/'flux' that are really being written about cities, not capitalism
(188): the de-coupling of Enlightenment from capitalism is clearer, still, when you look at England--'rationalism' is replaced by 'invisible hand,' etc [hmm]
(189-190):
nice, much of what the Enlightenment is indicted for is actually the ideology of improvement we see in capitalist Britain (not a consequence of commitment to rational analysis, etc., but disconnected from it)
(191-192): pithy definition of postmodernism, and its idiotic rejection of 'totalizing narratives'
(193):
in sum:
- capitalism is not a natural/inevitable consequence of human nature
- a deeply contradictory force--self-sustaining growth, but not incompatible with regular stagnation (important, re: thinking about development of PF)
(197): Continental Europe has better public services b/c of 'legacy of absolutism'[!!?]